新疆维吾尔自治区2021年全国高考乙卷英语试题

注意事项：

1、答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7. 5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例: How much is the shirt?

A. ￡19.15.         B. ￡ 9.18.         C. ￡ 9.15.

答案是C。

1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

 What is the man doing?

A. Asking the way.

B. Giving directions.

C. Correcting a mistake.

2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

What dress size does the woman want?

A. 8. B. 10. C. 12.

3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

What is the woman likely to do?

A. Make a phone call. B. Handle the problem. C. Have a rest.

4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

Which tour does the man seem to be interested in?

A. The evening tour. B. The half-day tour. C. The full-day tour.

5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

Where are the speakers?

A At a canteen. B. At a clinic. C. At a bank.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

6. What does the woman think of the match?

A. Entertaining. B. Discouraging. C. Boring.

7. What do the speakers plan to do on Tuesday afternoon?

A. Watch a game. B. Play tennis. C. Go to the cinema.

听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

8. What does the man advise Mrs. White to do?

A. Go on a diet. B. Do more exercise. C. Get enough sleep.

9. Which can be included in Mrs. White’s breakfast?

A. Eggs. B. Sausages. C. Porridge.

10 What is the man?

A. A teacher. B. A physician. C. A chef.

听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

11. How does Nancy look to Daniel?

A. Confused. B. Excited. C. Anxious.

12. Why does Daniel mention his performance in a play?

A. To comfort Nancy. B. To express his regret. C. To show his pride.

13. What is Nancy going to do next week?

A. Take a school test. B. Have a check-up. C. Go in for a competition.

14. What does Daniel offer to do for Nancy?

A. Rewrite her lines. B. Drive her to the theatre. C. Help her with the practice.

听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

15. What was Prof. Stone’s grandfather afraid of?

A. Leaving his home.

B. Parting from his son.

C. Taking early retirement.

16. What does old age mean to many elderly Americans?

A. Lack of moral support. B. Loss of self-worth. C. Change of living habits.

17. What will Prof. Stone talk about next concerning elderly people?

A. Public services they ask for.

B. Health care available to them.

C. Contributions they can make.

听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】

18. What does the speaker’s mother want her to be?

A. A confident person. B. A warm-hearted person. C. A humorous person.

19. Why did the speaker feel lonely in her childhood?

A. She often traveled by herself.

B. Her family moved frequently.

C. Her mother was busy working.

20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?

A. Importance of home schooling.

B. Mother-daughter relationship.

C A role model in her family.

第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

The Biggest Stadiums in the World

People have been pouring into stadiums since the days of ancient Greece. In around 80 A.D., the Romans built the Colosseum, which remains the world’s best known stadium and continues to inform contemporary design. Rome’s Colosseum was 157 feet tall and had 80 entrances, seating 50,000 people. However, that was small fry compared with the city’s Circus Maximus, which accommodated around 250,000 people.

These days, safety regulations-not to mention the modern sports fan’s desire for a good view and comfortable seat—tend to keep stadium capacities（容量） slightly lower. Even soccer fans tend to have a seat each; gone are the days of thousands standing to watch the match.

For the biggest stadiums in the world, we have used data supplied by the World Atlas list so far, which ranks them by their stated permanent capacity, as well as updated information from official stadium websites.

All these stadiums are still funtiona1, still open and still hosting the biggest events in world sport.

·Rungrado 1st of May Stadium, Pyongyang D.P.R. Korea. Capacity: 150,000. Opened: May 1,1989.

·Michigan Stadium, Ann Arbor, Michigan, U. S. Capacity: 107,601. Opened: October 1, 1927.

·Beaver Stadium, State College, Pennsylvania, U. S. Capacity: 106,572. Opened: September 17, 1960.

·Ohio Stadium, Columbus, Ohio, U. S. Capacity: 104,944. Opened: October 7,1922.

·Kyle Field, College Station, Texas, U. S. Capacity: 102,512. Opened: September 24, 1927.

21. How many people could the Circus Maximus hold?

A. 104,944. B. 107,601. C. About 150,000. D. About 250,000.

22. Of the following stadiums, which is the oldest?

A. Michigan Stadium. B. Beaver Stadium. C. Ohio Stadium. D. Kyle Field.

23. What do the listed stadiums have in common?

A. They host big games. B. They have become tourist attractions.

C. They were built by Americans. D. They are favored by architects.

B

When almost everyone has a mobile phone, why are more than half of Australian homes still paying for a landline（座机）?

These days you’d be hard pressed to find anyone in Australia over the age of 15 who doesn’t own a mobile phone. In fact plenty of younger kids have one in their pocket. Practically everyone can make and receive calls anywhere, anytime.

Still, 55 percent of Australians have a landline phone at home and only just over a quarter （29%） rely only on their smartphones according to a survey （调查）. Of those Australians who still have a landline, a third concede that it’s not really necessary and they’re keeping it as a security blanket — 19 percent say they never use it while a further 13 percent keep it in case of emergencies. I think my home falls into that category.

More than half of Australian homes are still choosing to stick with their home phone. Age is naturally a factor（因素）— only 58 percent of Generation Ys still use landlines now and then, compared to 84 percent of Baby Boomers who’ve perhaps had the same home number for 50 years. Age isn’t the only factor; I’d say it’s also to do with the makeup of your household.

Generation Xers with young families, like my wife and I, can still find it convenient to have a home phone rather than providing a mobile phone for every family member. That said, to be honest the only people who ever ring our home phone are our Baby Boomers parents, to the point where we play a game and guess who is calling before we pick up the phone（using Caller ID would take the fun out of it）.

How attached are you to your landline? How long until they go the way of gas street lamps and morning milk deliveries?

24. What does paragraph 2 mainly tell us about mobile phones?

A. Their target users. B. Their wide popularity.

C. Their major functions. D. Their complex design.

25. What does the underlined word “concede” in paragraph 3 mean?

A. Admit. B. Argue.

C. Remember. D. Remark.

26. What can we say about Baby Boomers?

A. They like smartphone games. B. They enjoy guessing callers’ identity.

C. They keep using landline phones. D. They are attached to their family.

27. What can be inferred about the landline from the last paragraph?

A. It remains a family necessity.

B. It will fall out of use some day.

C. It may increase daily expenses.

D. It is as important as the gas light.

C

You’ve heard that plastic is polluting the oceans — between 4.8 and 12.7 million tonnes enter ocean ecosystems every year. But does one plastic straw or cup really make a difference? Artist Benjamin Von Wong wants you to know that it does. He builds massive sculptures out of plastic garbage, forcing viewers to re-examine their relationship to single-use plastic products.

At the beginning of the year, the artist built a piece called “Strawpocalypse,” a pair of 10-foot-tall plastic waves, frozen mid-crash. Made of 168,000 plastic straws collected from several volunteer beach cleanups, the sculpture made its first appearance at the Estella Place shopping center in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam.

Just 9% of global plastic waste is recycled. Plastic straws are by no means the biggest source（来源）of plastic pollution, but they’ve recently come under fire because most people don’t need them to drink with and, because of their small size and weight, they cannot be recycled. Every straw that’s part of Von Wong’s artwork likely came from a drink that someone used for only a few minutes. Once the drink is gone, the straw will take centuries to disappear.

In a piece from 2018, Von Wong wanted to illustrate（说明） a specific statistic: Every 60 seconds, a truckload’s worth of plastic enters the ocean. For this work, titled “Truckload of Plastic,” Von Wong and a group of volunteers collected more than 10,000 pieces of plastic, which were then tied together to look like they’d been dumped（倾倒） from a truck all at once.

Von Wong hopes that his work will also help pressure big companies to reduce their plastic footprint.

28. What are Von Wong’s artworks intended for?

A. Beautifying the city he lives in. B. Introducing eco-friendly products.

C. Drawing public attention to plastic waste. D. Reducing garbage on the beach.

29. Why does the author discuss plastic straws in paragraph 3?

A. To show the difficulty of their recycling.

B. To explain why they are useful.

C. To voice his views on modern art.

D. To find a substitute for them.

30 What effect would “Truckload of Plastic” have on viewers?

A. Calming. B. Disturbing.

C. Refreshing. D. Challenging.

31. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. Artists’ Opinions on Plastic Safety

B. Media Interest in Contemporary Art

C. Responsibility Demanded of Big Companies

D. Ocean Plastics Transformed into Sculptures

D

During an interview for one of my books, my interviewer said something I still think about often. Annoyed by the level of distraction（干扰）in his open office, he said, “That’s why I have a membership at the coworking space across the street — so I can focus”. His comment struck me as strange. After all, coworking spaces also typically use an open office layout（布局）. But I recently came across a study that shows why his approach works.

The researchers examined various levels of noise on participants as they completed tests of creative thinking. They were randomly divided into four groups and exposed to various noise levels in the background, from total silence to 50 decibels（分贝）, 70 decibels, and 85 decibels. The differences between most of the groups were statistically insignificant; however, the participants in the 70 decibels group — those exposed to a level of noise similar to background chatter in a coffee shop — significantly outperformed the other groups. Since the effects were small, this may suggest that our creative thinking does not differ that much in response to total silence and 85 decibels of background noise.

But since the results at 70 decibels were significant, the study also suggests that the right level of background noise — not too loud and not total silence — may actually improve one’s creative thinking ability. The right level of background noise may interrupt our normal patterns of thinking just enough to allow our imaginations to wander, without making it impossible to focus. This kind of “distracted focus” appears to be the best state for working on creative tasks.

So why do so many of us hate our open offices? The problem may be that, in our offices, we can’t stop ourselves from getting drawn into others’ conversations while we’re trying to focus. Indeed, the researchers found that face-to-face interactions and conversations affect the creative process, and yet a coworking space or a coffee shop provides a certain level of noise while also providing freedom from interruptions.

32. Why does the interviewer prefer a coworking space?

A. It helps him concentrate. B. It blocks out background noise.

C. It has a pleasant atmosphere. D. It encourages face-to-face interactions.

33. Which level of background noise may promote creative thinking ability?

A. Total silence. B. 50 decibels C. 70 decibels. D. 8 5 decibels.

34. What makes an open office unwelcome to many people?

A. Personal privacy unprotected. B. Limited working space.

C. Restrictions on group discussion. D. Constant interruptions.

35. What can we infer about the author from the text?

A. He’s a news reporter.

B. He’s an office manager.

C. He’s a professional designer.

D. He’s a published writer.

第二节（共5小题:每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

According to Jessica Hagy, author of How to Be Interesting, it’s not difficult to make yourself interesting at a dinner party.

___36___, if you’re out of your comfort zone or if you’re wandering into somebody’s house for the first time. So the main thing is just to show up and be adventurous, trying different foods and talking to strangers.

People love to talk about themselves. If you can start the conversation with a question other than “What do you do for a living?”, you’ll be able to get a lot more interesting conversation out of whomever it is you’re talking to. ___37___, it can bring in “I have this old, broken-down vehicle” or “I rode the bus with these crazy people who were laughing at silly jokes in the back.” It just opens up conversation.

___38___? If you can’t take their wine away, you should certainly try to take away their soapbox （讲台）. If you’re the host, you can ask them to help you in the kitchen with something and just remove them from the situation.___39___.

And what about that other dinner-party killer: awkward silence? If you’re faced with an awkward silence at a dinner party, the only thing that always gets everyone talking again is to give the host a compliment（赞扬）. ___40___. Just quickly turn around and say, “This cake is extremely delicious and you have to tell me all about it.”

So being interesting at a dinner party isn’t that hard.

A. How do you know the host

B. The first step is to go exploring

C. If you ask the question “How did you get here?”

D. Be prepared to have awkward conversations with strangers

E. Or turn the conversation into a topic where they have little to say

F. What about that person who had too much to drink or won’t stop talking

G. He or she is the person who is feeling the weight of that awkwardness the most

第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节（共20小题;每小题1. 5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Simply saying thank you doesn’t seem enough in certain situations. I was considering this while working as a ___41___ just a few weeks ago. And it came to me then how much easier it would be if we had a range of words that express different ___42___ of gratitude(感谢).

My thoughts were soon ___43___. We had a woman patient who was ___44___ from a knee replacement operation. One afternoon, while ___45___ to get into bed she collapsed(倒下) from what was ___46___ discovered to be a heart attack. The collapse was disastrous, ___47___the emergency medical team and good teamwork. But she recovered, though ___48___, and was ready for discharge(出院)after four weeks.

 She was ___49___ for everything that the medical and nursing team had done for her. On her day of discharge, we shared in her _____50_____ at her recovery. As she was _____51_____ she was eager to say _____52_____ to each of us in the nursing team. When she _____53_____ one nurse, she tried to press a five-pound note into her hand. My colleague _____54_____ to accept it, saying that we were all just _____55_____ our job. The patient looked puzzled, and then _____56_____:“Oh this isn’t for the_____57_____ I had. I take that as a _____58_____. No, this is for setting my hair yesterday.”

    And there you have it. To many people,_____59_____lives is part of the job but styling hair is an _____60_____ and should be rewarded.

41. A. cleaner B. chemist C. nurse D. doctor

42. A. grades B. meanings C. needs D. expectations

43. A. brushed aside B. put to the test C. brought under discussion D. taken into account

44. A. departing B. escaping C. retiring D. recovering

45. A. attempting B. choosing C. pausing D. promising

46. A. eventually B. fortunately C. casually D. secretly

47. A. assessing B. requiring C. forming D. proving

48 A. slightly B. accidentally C. slowly D. happily

49. A. grateful B. thoughtful C. sorrowful D. fearful

50. A. surprise B. delight C. curiosity D. disappointment

51. A. operating B. thinking C. hesitating D. leaving

52. A. sorry B. hello C. goodbye D. yes

53. A. reached B. consulted C. introduced D. persuaded

54. A. wished B. pretended C. failed D. refused

55. A. enjoying B. doing C. securing D. starting

56. A. repeated B. recited C. replied D. reported

57. A. courage B. patience C. duty D. care

58. A. goal B. given C. push D. greeting

59. A. risking B. changing C. saving D. building

60. A. honour B. ability C. opening D. extra

第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Ecotourism is commonly regarded as low impact(影响)travel to undisturbed places. It is different from traditional tourism because it allows the traveler to become ___61___ (educate)about the areas - both in terms of geographical conditions and cultural characteristics, and often provides money for conservation and benefits the ___62___(develop)of the local areas.

Ecotourism has ___63___(it)origin with the environmental movement of the 1970s. It was not widely accepted as a travel concept ___64___ the late 1980s. During that time, increasing environmental awareness made it desirable.

Due to ___65___ growing popularity of environmentally-related and adventure travel, various types ___66___ trips are now being classified as ecotourism. Actually, a true eco-friendly trip must meet the following principles:

·Minimize the impact of ___67___(visit)the place.

·Build respect for and awareness of the environment and cultural practices.

·Provide ___68___(finance)aid and other benefits for local peoples.

·Make sure that the tourism provides experiences for both the visitors and the hosts.

Komodo National Park, officially recognized in 1980, is popular for ecotourism because of its unique biodiversity.___69___(activity)there range from whale watching to hiking(远足)and accommodations aim ____70____(have) a low impact on the natural environment.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

71. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

I love doing housework. I always assist my parents in doing the dish after meals. I also water the flowers in the yard and tidying up my own bedroom whatever necessary. In my opinion, students can benefit a lot doing some housework. Firstly, doing housework was helpful for us to be a responsible person. Also, it gives our parents more time to do what they are like and it improves the family relationship. What’s most, doing housework can be a form of mentally relaxation from study. That’s our view on housework. And hopes this can inspire more thinking on the topic!

第二节  书面表达（满分25分）

72. 你校将举办英语演讲比赛。请你以Be smart online learners为题写一篇发言稿参赛，内容包括：

1. 分析优势与不足；

2. 提出学习建议。

注意：

1. 词数100左右;

2. 题目和首句已为你写好。